Was Paul Apostle to the Gentiles or Israel? According to the Christian teaching and secular tradition, the Apostle Paul ministered to Gentile people. They will even point to verses such as (Gal_1:2) to substantiate these claims. But there is big problem with this idea. The Bible is consistent with the fact that all the Apostles, including Paul, ministered to the people of Israel only. But let us focus on the following verse.
Gal 1:2 And all the brethren which are with me, unto the churches of Galatia:
From a Secular perspective the Galatians of (Gal 1:2) Are a Celtic Gentiles but Paul the Apostle ministered to Israel only
If you searched Google for Galatians, you would get the following result:
‘Gauls’) were a Celtic people dwelling in Galatia, a region of central Anatolia surrounding present-day Ankara, during the Hellenistic period. They spoke the Galatian language, which was closely related to Gaulish, a contemporary Celtic language spoken in Gaul.
Thayer Definition Galatia = ?land of the Galli, Gauls?
“The Roman province of Galatia may be roughly described as the central region of the peninsula of Asia Minor. It is bounded on the north by Bithynia and Paphlagonia; on the east by Pontus; the south by Cappadocia and Lycaonia; on the west by Phrygia“
For the record, both sources concur. No surprise here because the ?Thayer definition? is of man-made origin. They get their information from secular sources, and not from the Bible. The Bible however will show that the Apostle Paul ministered to Israel, not the Gentiles.
The Bible will show that the Galatians are Israel exiles whom Paul the Apostle ministered to and not Gentiles
A good place to start is the place where we first encounter these Galatians
(1Co_16:1) But concerning the collection, the one for the holy ones, as I set in order to the assemblies of Galatia, so also you do!
Here Paul is giving instructions to the Corinthians to take up a collection to send to the Israelites in Jerusalem as he had previously done in the assemblies of Galatia. We should examine every word in the this verse. For example, what does the term ?Holy ones? refer to. The read the following:
(Psa 83:2) For behold, your enemies sounded, and the ones detesting you lift their head. (Psa 83:3) Against your people they deal treacherously in design, and consult against your holy ones.
Therefore, in Psa 83:2-3 GOD defines the ?Holy ones? as the people of GOD. We know that GOD’s people are called İsrail. Here Speaking of The GOD of Israel the Psalmist declares that the gentiles deal treacherously with ?HIS? people. Simply put we have precedent that GOD is referring to the Sons of Israel as the holy ones in (1Co_16:1)
What does the word ?Assembly? mean?
The next word we should pay attention to is ?the assemblies?. Sometimes the word “assemblies” can be used in both the plural and singular. For example:
(1Co_16:19) Greet the assemblies(G1577) of Asia! Aquila and Priscilla Greet you much in the Lord, with the assembly(G1577) in their house.
This shows that there were several assemblies in Asia. Asia is a large area comprising many different jurisdictions and would comprise many assemblies. It is singular in the case of Aquila and Priscilla and ?the single assembly in their house?
Invariably, in the Old Testament the word rendered as (G1577) a singular word. It is unique to Israel assembling to the LORD. They never called several assemblies to the LORD. They never assembled in many places to the LORD. Therefore, whenever an assembly met they do so unto GOD.
Thayer Definition: Assembly(G1577)
1) a gathering of citizens called out from their homes into some public place, an assembly
1a) an assembly of the people convened at the public place of the council for the purpose of deliberating
1b) the assembly of the Israelites
Therefore, ?assembly? in the Bible is exclusive to Israelites. Most translations, except for a few don?t pick up on the normal use of the word. For example, the FCAB translation is the most accurate.
(Gal 1:2) And all the brethren who are with me, to the assembly that is in Galatia. (FCAB)
This makes it clear that the reference is about an assembly of Israelites in the country of Galatia.
A look at the word ?brethren? in Gal 1:2
Let us continue to break down the words. This time it is ?brethren? in Gal 1:2
(Gal 1:2) And all the brethren who are with me, to the assembly that is in Galatia. (FCAB)
Pay particular attention this time to the word ?Brethren? It also appears in other verses for example:
(Act_7:2) And he said, Men, brethren, and fathers, hearken! The God of glory appeared to our father
Stephen is an Israelite and addresses his listeners as ?brethren?. Since he is a son of Israel, he, therefore, addresses his fellow Israelites as brethren. In another example, we read.
(Act_7:26) And the following day he appeared to ones doing combat, and he forced them to peace, having said, Men, you are brethren, why wrong one another?
Here Stephen is recounting an incident with Moses (A son of Israel) trying to make peace between two warring Israelites. He tells them they are all Israelites and shouldn?t be warring against each other. Therefore, if this verse (Gal 1:2) should be read in context, then Paul could only have been referring to the Israelites. NOT Gentiles
Israelites who are ignorant of their history & customs
Let us examine another message from the Apostle Paul. We will show that it can only be relevant to the people of Israel.
(Gal 3:1) O unthinking Galatians, who charmed you, to not yield to the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was written about beforehand, being crucified among you?
You should ask yourself: What are the things of JESUS CHRIST been written about? Also, you need to ask where they would have read these things. It is the Bible and most specific the Torah, Psalms, and prophets.
Gentiles would be ignorant of all these things. They don?t have the Torah, Psalms, and Prophets. Therefore, it would be ridiculous for Paul to accuse the gentiles of ignorance. Imagine how befuddled they would be, being called ?senseless?, ?unwise?, ?stupid?, ?lacking? How can they be stupid for not knowing the information they were never taught.
Contrast that to Israel who would have known all these things referred to in the verse. In this context, Paul was referring to the crucifixion of CHRIST.
Let?s look at an earlier case of unbelief among Israel. In (Luke 24:25-27) we have LORD JESUS CHRIST chiding the sons of Israel for being unthinking and slow of heart. They failed to understand the things written about HIM in the Old Testament.
(Luk 24:25-27) And he said to them, O unthinking ones and slow in heart to trust upon all which the prophets spoke. Is it not necessary the Christ to suffer these things, and to enter into his glory? And beginning from Moses, and from all of the prophets, he interpreted to them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.
CHRIST in The Old Testament
This is the same language Paul used in remonstrating with the Israelites living in Galatia. It is their lack of understanding of the Torah. The following Old Testament prophecies would have prompted their memory.
Isaiah 53:7 "He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; he was led like a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is silent, so he did not open his mouth." (Psalm 22:17-18) "I can count all my bones; people stare and gloat over me. They divide my garments among them and cast lots for my clothing." Psalm 22:1-2 "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from saving me, so far from the words of my groaning? O my God, I cry out by day, but you do not answer, by night, and am not silent."
Therefore, since these things are exclusive to the sons of Israel, then Paul could only be referring to the sons of Israel in (Gal 3:1) NOT Gentiles.
Bible corruption give false narratives that Paul was Apostle to the Gentiles when in fact he ministered to Israel only
The fact is that the Bible has been corrupted to give false narratives. The truth is that Paul and the other Apostles taught among their Israelites brothers who were living in other lands. They were emigrants or exiles from particularly the Northern kingdoms. We know that is so by comparing scriptural documents against others. I have noticed that all translations are consistent in their reference to the Galatians as (unthinking, foolish, senseless, stupid, lacking). These terms are portraying the same meaning in the context of Paul?s reproof. But some translations including (HRB) are different.
(Gal 3:1) O you lacking exile Galatians, who bewitched you not to obey the truth, to whom before your eyes Yahshua Messiah was written before among you crucified? (HRB Hebraic Roots Bible)
The adjective ?exile? was part of the original document. These omissions were used to change the narratives. For example, today many so-called Africans are emigrating for economic reasons to European, Asian, and American lands. Living in these lands did not change their nationalities. They are still so-called Africans. They have now exiled Africans in Europe, Asia and America.
Same way, the Hebraic Root Bible shows that Israel was a minority community of Israelites in Galatia.
Apostle Peter reference to Galatia/Galatians as Israelites (1Pe_1:1)
The fact that the Hebraic Root Bible includes the adjective ?Exile? is further vindicated by other Bible verses. For example, we read the following:
(1Pe_1:1) Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the chosen immigrants of the dispersion of Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
Note: These places and regions are now located in the present-day country of Turkey
The Apostle Peter sends a message to several places outside of Jerusalem, Samaria and Galilee. These are the places where one would normally expect to see Israelites living. The message goes out to Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia. Did you notice Galatia in there? Yes, the same Galatians whom Paul called ?unthinking?. Also, importantly the people who are referenced in these lands are called immigrants. ?to the chosen immigrants? Therefore, ?Immigrants? in (1Pe_1:1) and ?exiles? in (Gal 3:1) are the same meaning. It is the dispersion of Israel into foreign lands.
Then Peter continues to make the connection of JESUS CHRIST to these people:
(1Pe 1:7-8) that the proving of the belief of yours (much more esteemed than gold that perishes) even being tried through fire, should be found in high praise, and glory, and honor, in revelation of Jesus Christ. Whom not having seen, you love; in whom now not looking on, but believing, you exult with joy unspeakable, and glorifying;
Israelites in foreign lands were not privy to the crucifixion of CHRIST in Jerusalem
Peter?s message to these immigrants suggests they were not privy to the incidents that had occurred in Jerusalem years or months earlier, concerning CHRIST JESUS. Centuries earlire, they were forced to flee to other lands because of the Assyrians. Many migrated for economic reasons.
Through the efforts of Peter and others, they now know of CHRIST and are obedient to the gospel of the ?good news? that GOD promised them in the Old Testament.
(1Pe 1:10) Concerning which deliverance the prophets sought and searched out, the ones prophesying concerning the favor towards you; (1Pe 1:11) searching in what, or of what kind of time spirit of Christ was manifest in them ,testifying beforehand the sufferings in Christ, and the glories after these things
These are the things that the Old Testament prophets sought out and left records of the suffering of CHRIST and the Glory after these things
(1Pe 1:12) to whom it was revealed that, it was not to themselves, but to us they were serving up those things, which now were announced to you by the ones announcing good news to you in holy spirit sent from heaven, in which angels desire to lean over to see.
In the verse, Peter the congregants as ?us?. Who are the ?Us in this context?? They are Israel or more specifically those of the dispersed Northern Kingdom Israelites. We have the clarification in the following verse:
(Jas 1:1) James, bondman of God and the Lord Jesus Christ,, to the twelve tribes, to the ones in the dispersion, Hail!
The Apostle Paul ministered to Israel not to the Gentiles. These verses make it quite clear that Paul, Peter, and James’ ministry were to the dispersed of Israel. the twelve tribes (mainly Northern Kingdom Israelites) scattered abroad. NOT gentiles
here we find absolute proof that the people who believe that the Galatians Paul referred to are Celtic people are dead wrong and the Word of GOD found them, liars. Because they deduce this myth from out of the lying words of man. The next question is why not many Israel Inhabits this place anymore. This is a point that is quite controversial among Israel and even the gentiles alike.
There has always been large colonies of Israelites in these present-day gentile land. Some sources estimated that the number of the Israelite immigrant population was at least 8-10%.
A large number of Israel has been migrating from Israel before, during, and after the Assyrian takeover. Some would take the way by land Syria(Aram). Some would proceed to present-day Turkey, through Macedonia, Greece than some to Rome and some as far as Spain (all documented in the Bible). The fact is there are very few of them in these lands today. So, what happened to them? The Bible has the answers.
(Deut 28:25) May the LORD appoint you for slaughter before your enemies. In one way you shall go forth against them, and in seven ways you shall flee from their face. And you will be in dispersion among all kingdoms of the earth. But below it will say it more succinctly. (Deu 4:27) And LORD JEHOVAH shall scatter you among the nations and you shall be left few in number among the nations when LORD JEHOVAH your God will scatter you there.
So the LORD said it and it happen. But if the LORD made them few until they practically disappeared, then GOD must have used some mechanism to destroy them from off these lands. HE did it with the gentiles (their enemies)
But how did the gentiles accomplish this??? Check out my Youtube Video. How the European Gentiles destroyed The Israel of GOD You may prepare for this lesson by googling murder, genocide, and miscegenation.
MESİH'in gelişi sadece İsrail için iyi bir haberdir SON ZAMAN POLİTİKASI
?Was Paul Apostle to the Gentiles or Israel?? üzerine 3 dü?ünceleri
Not true. You misinterpret so many passages. Jesus did not teach Paul who was Saul. He was given a revelation, unlike all the other Apostles. Who were taught by Jesus. Jesus on the road to Damascus changed Saul. He specifically told him to go to the Gentiles and Mark was with him, a Gentile. This was after Paul split with Barnabas. Paul initially was the only Apostle to teach Gentiles.
Paul preached to Jews living abroad scattered throughout Asia and Europe since the days of invasion by Assyrians and Babylonians. Jews were scattered all over the then known world. These Jews were referred to by Jesus as “The Lost sheep of the house of Israel” former Jacob. The word “house” here denotes descendance, genealogy, family name. These were descendants Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, true Hebrew Jews. Paul was reaching this audience. This is clear to me from the fact that at every city of Asia and Europe he went he preached almost exclusively at Synagogues. In Cyrene he preached at the Synagogue of the Jews (Acts 6:9). At Antioch he preached at the Synagogue also (Acts 13:14). As he arrived in Berea he preached at the Synagogue of the Jews (Acts 17:10). In Thessalonica he preached at the Synagogue of the Jews (Acts 17:1). At Ephesus he preached at the Synagogue of the Jews (Acts 18:19). Absolutely everywhere Paul went he looked for Synagogues and preached there to Gentile Jews. Paul himself was a Gentile from Tarsus, a Roman city, not an Israelite citizen but a Jew of the Tribe of Benjamine, nonetheless (Jew inwardly, by descent, not through citizenship, Romans 2:29).
One of Jesus complaints against some of the seven churches of Asia was that some there claimed to be Jews although they weren’t. Obviously, those churches were comprised of Jews, not foreigners (Revelation 3:9″).
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